Competency Assessment – Security Personnel Test Details This is a 40 multiple-choice questions/answers competency test. All question must be completed. Mark one answer per question. 0 points – given if answer is wrong, 5 points – given if answer is correct. The form must be submitted within 45 minutes after you start the test. Pass rate is 140 points (70%). Your name and surname will have to be entered after you press the finish button. 1 / 40 1. On discovering fire, what’s the first thing security operative should do? a. Tackle the fire with appropriate extinguisher b. Call the emergency services c. Raise the alarm d. Open all doors and windows close to the fire 2 / 40 2. What is the main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001? a. To regulate customer rights within private security industry b. To regulate some sectors of the private security industry c. To improve pay and conditions for security operatives d. To provide police with assistance at large events 3 / 40 3. What is the most effective way of reducing personal risk at work place? a. Conducting risk assessment on regular basis b. Taking violent situation to one’s own to protect colleagues c. Ensuring non involvement of police to avoid legal hassles d. Adequately using physical force to resolve conflicts 4 / 40 4. Why must security operatives must have clear fire evacuation procedure? a. To enable them to re-enter the premisses to search for anyone who is missing b. So that they can provide an effective assistance in the event of an emergency c. To allow them to be the first one to reach the assembly point and make a call d. To help to judge whether evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly 5 / 40 5. Which of the following does the RIDDOR Act 1995 mandate? a. Reporting place at workplace b. Reporting accidents, incidents and injuries caused at workplace c. Reporting absenteeism at workplace d. Reporting drug abuse at workplace 6 / 40 6. Which of the following is the crime reduction initiative? a. Youth organisation parades b. National Pubwatch c. Local Council d. Health and Safety Officer 7 / 40 7. Under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, what must a person have to be able to work as door supervisor? a. At least 12 month experience in the industry b. License to practice c. Annual fire safety training d. Annual Health and Safety training 8 / 40 8. Which is the highest level of UK government threat level? a. Critical b. Substantial c. High d. Severe 9 / 40 9. In the correct order, what do the two D’s In RIDDOR stand for? a. Dangerous and Disabled b. Diseases and Dangerous c. Dangerous and Drunk d. Doorman and Disabled 10 / 40 10. What is the definition of an ‘’offensive’’ weapon? a. Any object made or adapted to cause harm b. A chef’s knife c. A broken bottle d. A blade caried for religious reasons 11 / 40 11. What is the first thing security operative should do after receiving a bomb threat over the telephone? a. Inform the management and wait for further instructions b. Search the premisses to try and locate any device c. Record the time of the call and report to police immediately d. Assume that the call is a joke and ignore it 12 / 40 12. In the event of a possible bomb threat what the first action a security operative should make? a. Contact the police b. Remain calm c. Raise the alarm and evacuate d. Search for the bomb 13 / 40 13. When making an arrest, what must door supervisor do? a. Call the police to assist with the arrest b. Explain to the other customers, standing by, why the arrest is necessary c. Tell the person you are arresting, the reason for the arrest d. Ensure that the person they arresting is not drunk 14 / 40 14. What does a ‘’ critical’’ terror threat level indicate? a. An attack is highly unlikely b. An attack is a strong possibility c. An attack is possible, but not likely d. An attack is highly likely and expected imminently 15 / 40 15. What does SCaN stand for in security? a. See, check and notify b. See, cordon and note c. See, control and notify d. See, clarify and note 16 / 40 16. Which of the following best describes a manned security sector? a. Guarding property against destruction or damage, against been stolen or against been otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained b. The use of CCTV equipment c. Using barriers and grills over the windows and doors d. Using a body worn camera 17 / 40 17. Which of the following would be a reason to evacuate a premisses? a. A drunk customer shouting ‘’bomb’’ b. A threat passed by police c. A customer asking questions about security arrangements d. Multiple sightings of the same person 18 / 40 18. What could lead to destruction/loss of evidence on a crime scene? a. Cordoning off the area of crime b. Leaving the scene with protective clothing on c. Documenting the scene of crime d. Collecting physical evidence 19 / 40 19. Who is the premisses license granted by? a. The Crown Court b. Home Office c. The Magistrate Court d. The licensing authority 20 / 40 20. What does the acronym F.I.R.E. mean in the context of fire safety? a. Find, Inform, Restrict, Extinguish b. Find, Investigate, Remove, Exit c. Follow, Inform, Run, Evacuate d. Follow, Remove, Inform, Evacuate 21 / 40 21. Which of this is the main reason for security officer to record incidents? a. The more incidents they record, the more pay rate will be b. It may be used as evidence by police or in court c. It shows that they are doing their job better than others d. The less incidents that record, the better premisses will look 22 / 40 22. If the employee is taken to the hospital as a result of an injury sustained at work, their employer has a duty under RIDDOR to: a. Enter the incident in accident book once employee returns to work b. Pay the employee unlimited damages and costs c. Report the incident to the Health and Safety executive d. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy 23 / 40 23. Licensed premisses have permitted capacity limits to make sure that the: a. Premises are safe and can be evacuated easily b. Premisses has enough room for customers to dance c. Licensing authority charges a correct fee for premisses license d. Local police know which premisses to test targeting 24 / 40 24. While using the P.O.P model (Person, Object, Place), you make the assessment of: a. Remote areas, away from observation, safe refuge b. Are they bigger, fitter, younger, and stronger than you? c. An object in the persons possession or a nearby item that could be used as a weapon d. All of the above 25 / 40 25. Key elements in the justification of Physical Intervention include the need for it to be: a. Unnecessary, unreasonable, disproportionate b. Accurate, brief, concise c. Accurate, brief, clear d. Necessary, reasonable, proportionate 26 / 40 26. How would the word SECURE be pronounce using the phonetic alphabets? a. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo b. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uni, Romeo, Echo c. Sierra, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo d. Sierra, Echo, Chopper, Uni, Rome, Echo 27 / 40 27. When justifying use of Physical Intervention, what should be considered? a. That all other options have failed or were likely to fail b. That it was used thoroughly c. That pain was the only method to control the person d. That no bystanders were injured 28 / 40 28. Which of the following documents is suitable proof of ID? a. An over 18 gym membership card b. Job ID card c. A senior student library card d. Valid driving license 29 / 40 29. What should the door supervisor do if, when searching, they find illegal drugs in customer’s possession? a. Destroy drugs immediately and call the police to report the incident b. Keep drugs in the safe place and return them to the customer when they leave the premisses c. Security should put drugs in the pocket and hand it to the manager at their earliest convenience d. Confiscate the drugs and record how, when and where they were found 30 / 40 30. When do you use Run Hide Tell protocol? a. In the event of lone working hours b. In the event of fire emergency c. In the rare events of fire arms or weapons attack d. In the event of shoplifting 31 / 40 31. What is the main role of security officer? a. To ensure that everyone feels good b. To promote the business c. To ensure that customers are safe d. To provide good customer service 32 / 40 32. Which of the following might indicate a suspicious behaviour by a customer? a. Asking questions about security arrangements b. Parking their vehicle in the parking slot and then leaving the site c. Staying in the same place all day on the site d. A customer trying to make lots of friends 33 / 40 33. The abbreviation P.P.E. stands for? a. Personal Protective Earplugs b. Personal Prevention Equipment c. Permanent Protection Equipment d. Personal Protective Equipment 34 / 40 34. With regards to terrorism – what might be an indicator of suspicious activity? a. An unknown car in the office car park b. A person walking past the building every day at the same time c. A person trying to avoid being seen on CCTV d. A person asking questions about opening and closing times of the venue 35 / 40 35. Which of the following represent the UK government threat levels in order of severity? a. Low, Moderate, Substantial, High b. Low, Substantial, Severe, High, Critical c. Low, Substantial, Severe, Critical d. Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical 36 / 40 36. At the scene of a serious incident in the licensed premisses, a door supervisor should make sure that: a. Broken glass and other items that may harm people are cleared away b. No one tampers with the evidence relating to the incident c. All the evidence is sealed and recorded in alphabetical order d. Everyone present at the time of an incident stays exactly where they are 37 / 40 37. Which of the following is the least effective deterrent for terrorist activity? a. The visible presence of vigilant security staff b. Searching inside and outside the venue at regular intervals c. Having all customer bags searched before entry d. A large sign informing the public that security staff are present 38 / 40 38. Following the arrest of the person in the licensed premisses, police arrived, and a door supervisor must: a. Get the signed statement from the person arrested b. Ask to take leave until the court hearing c. Interview all witnesses to the offence d. Explain to the police why they arrested the person 39 / 40 39. Explain the H.O.T protocol meaning? a. Hidden, obstructed, typical b. Hindered, obviously suspicious, typical c. Hidden, obsolete, typical d. Hidden, obviously suspicious, typical 40 / 40 40. Under Health and safety legislation all employees have a duty to? a. Undertake a detailed risk assessment of their working environment at the beginning of each shift b. Follow processes and procedures that have been put in place to protect their safety and that of others c. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy d. Undergo annual health screen with a doctor to ensure they are fit to work
