Competency Assessment – Security Personnel Test Details This is a 40 multiple-choice questions/answers competency test. All question must be completed. Mark one answer per question. 0 points – given if answer is wrong, 5 points – given if answer is correct. The form must be submitted within 45 minutes after you start the test. Pass rate is 140 points (70%). Your name and surname will have to be entered after you press the finish button. 1 / 40 1. While using the P.O.P model (Person, Object, Place), you make the assessment of: a. Remote areas, away from observation, safe refuge b. An object in the persons possession or a nearby item that could be used as a weapon c. Are they bigger, fitter, younger, and stronger than you? d. All of the above 2 / 40 2. What is the main role of security officer? a. To promote the business b. To ensure that customers are safe c. To ensure that everyone feels good d. To provide good customer service 3 / 40 3. Which of the following best describes a manned security sector? a. Using barriers and grills over the windows and doors b. Guarding property against destruction or damage, against been stolen or against been otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained c. The use of CCTV equipment d. Using a body worn camera 4 / 40 4. In the correct order, what do the two D’s In RIDDOR stand for? a. Doorman and Disabled b. Dangerous and Drunk c. Diseases and Dangerous d. Dangerous and Disabled 5 / 40 5. What does a ‘’ critical’’ terror threat level indicate? a. An attack is possible, but not likely b. An attack is highly unlikely c. An attack is a strong possibility d. An attack is highly likely and expected imminently 6 / 40 6. If the employee is taken to the hospital as a result of an injury sustained at work, their employer has a duty under RIDDOR to: a. Report the incident to the Health and Safety executive b. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy c. Pay the employee unlimited damages and costs d. Enter the incident in accident book once employee returns to work 7 / 40 7. Under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, what must a person have to be able to work as door supervisor? a. License to practice b. Annual fire safety training c. Annual Health and Safety training d. At least 12 month experience in the industry 8 / 40 8. Which of the following represent the UK government threat levels in order of severity? a. Low, Substantial, Severe, High, Critical b. Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical c. Low, Substantial, Severe, Critical d. Low, Moderate, Substantial, High 9 / 40 9. Who is the premisses license granted by? a. Home Office b. The Magistrate Court c. The Crown Court d. The licensing authority 10 / 40 10. Which of the following might indicate a suspicious behaviour by a customer? a. Parking their vehicle in the parking slot and then leaving the site b. Staying in the same place all day on the site c. Asking questions about security arrangements d. A customer trying to make lots of friends 11 / 40 11. At the scene of a serious incident in the licensed premisses, a door supervisor should make sure that: a. Everyone present at the time of an incident stays exactly where they are b. No one tampers with the evidence relating to the incident c. All the evidence is sealed and recorded in alphabetical order d. Broken glass and other items that may harm people are cleared away 12 / 40 12. What could lead to destruction/loss of evidence on a crime scene? a. Leaving the scene with protective clothing on b. Collecting physical evidence c. Cordoning off the area of crime d. Documenting the scene of crime 13 / 40 13. With regards to terrorism – what might be an indicator of suspicious activity? a. An unknown car in the office car park b. A person trying to avoid being seen on CCTV c. A person asking questions about opening and closing times of the venue d. A person walking past the building every day at the same time 14 / 40 14. Explain the H.O.T protocol meaning? a. Hidden, obstructed, typical b. Hidden, obsolete, typical c. Hidden, obviously suspicious, typical d. Hindered, obviously suspicious, typical 15 / 40 15. Which of this is the main reason for security officer to record incidents? a. It shows that they are doing their job better than others b. The less incidents that record, the better premisses will look c. It may be used as evidence by police or in court d. The more incidents they record, the more pay rate will be 16 / 40 16. What is the main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001? a. To regulate customer rights within private security industry b. To provide police with assistance at large events c. To improve pay and conditions for security operatives d. To regulate some sectors of the private security industry 17 / 40 17. Which of the following is the crime reduction initiative? a. Health and Safety Officer b. Local Council c. National Pubwatch d. Youth organisation parades 18 / 40 18. What should the door supervisor do if, when searching, they find illegal drugs in customer’s possession? a. Keep drugs in the safe place and return them to the customer when they leave the premisses b. Security should put drugs in the pocket and hand it to the manager at their earliest convenience c. Confiscate the drugs and record how, when and where they were found d. Destroy drugs immediately and call the police to report the incident 19 / 40 19. Following the arrest of the person in the licensed premisses, police arrived, and a door supervisor must: a. Interview all witnesses to the offence b. Explain to the police why they arrested the person c. Ask to take leave until the court hearing d. Get the signed statement from the person arrested 20 / 40 20. The abbreviation P.P.E. stands for? a. Personal Prevention Equipment b. Personal Protective Earplugs c. Personal Protective Equipment d. Permanent Protection Equipment 21 / 40 21. Which of the following does the RIDDOR Act 1995 mandate? a. Reporting accidents, incidents and injuries caused at workplace b. Reporting absenteeism at workplace c. Reporting drug abuse at workplace d. Reporting place at workplace 22 / 40 22. What is the definition of an ‘’offensive’’ weapon? a. A broken bottle b. A chef’s knife c. A blade caried for religious reasons d. Any object made or adapted to cause harm 23 / 40 23. Key elements in the justification of Physical Intervention include the need for it to be: a. Necessary, reasonable, proportionate b. Accurate, brief, clear c. Unnecessary, unreasonable, disproportionate d. Accurate, brief, concise 24 / 40 24. What does SCaN stand for in security? a. See, cordon and note b. See, control and notify c. See, check and notify d. See, clarify and note 25 / 40 25. Which of the following documents is suitable proof of ID? a. An over 18 gym membership card b. A senior student library card c. Valid driving license d. Job ID card 26 / 40 26. On discovering fire, what’s the first thing security operative should do? a. Tackle the fire with appropriate extinguisher b. Raise the alarm c. Call the emergency services d. Open all doors and windows close to the fire 27 / 40 27. What is the most effective way of reducing personal risk at work place? a. Adequately using physical force to resolve conflicts b. Conducting risk assessment on regular basis c. Ensuring non involvement of police to avoid legal hassles d. Taking violent situation to one’s own to protect colleagues 28 / 40 28. Which of the following is the least effective deterrent for terrorist activity? a. The visible presence of vigilant security staff b. Searching inside and outside the venue at regular intervals c. Having all customer bags searched before entry d. A large sign informing the public that security staff are present 29 / 40 29. Which is the highest level of UK government threat level? a. Severe b. Substantial c. Critical d. High 30 / 40 30. Under Health and safety legislation all employees have a duty to? a. Follow processes and procedures that have been put in place to protect their safety and that of others b. Undergo annual health screen with a doctor to ensure they are fit to work c. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy d. Undertake a detailed risk assessment of their working environment at the beginning of each shift 31 / 40 31. Why must security operatives must have clear fire evacuation procedure? a. To enable them to re-enter the premisses to search for anyone who is missing b. To help to judge whether evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly c. So that they can provide an effective assistance in the event of an emergency d. To allow them to be the first one to reach the assembly point and make a call 32 / 40 32. When justifying use of Physical Intervention, what should be considered? a. That all other options have failed or were likely to fail b. That it was used thoroughly c. That no bystanders were injured d. That pain was the only method to control the person 33 / 40 33. When making an arrest, what must door supervisor do? a. Tell the person you are arresting, the reason for the arrest b. Explain to the other customers, standing by, why the arrest is necessary c. Call the police to assist with the arrest d. Ensure that the person they arresting is not drunk 34 / 40 34. How would the word SECURE be pronounce using the phonetic alphabets? a. Sierra, Echo, Chopper, Uni, Rome, Echo b. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uni, Romeo, Echo c. Sierra, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo d. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo 35 / 40 35. What does the acronym F.I.R.E. mean in the context of fire safety? a. Follow, Inform, Run, Evacuate b. Follow, Remove, Inform, Evacuate c. Find, Investigate, Remove, Exit d. Find, Inform, Restrict, Extinguish 36 / 40 36. In the event of a possible bomb threat what the first action a security operative should make? a. Contact the police b. Remain calm c. Search for the bomb d. Raise the alarm and evacuate 37 / 40 37. When do you use Run Hide Tell protocol? a. In the rare events of fire arms or weapons attack b. In the event of lone working hours c. In the event of shoplifting d. In the event of fire emergency 38 / 40 38. Licensed premisses have permitted capacity limits to make sure that the: a. Licensing authority charges a correct fee for premisses license b. Premisses has enough room for customers to dance c. Premises are safe and can be evacuated easily d. Local police know which premisses to test targeting 39 / 40 39. Which of the following would be a reason to evacuate a premisses? a. Multiple sightings of the same person b. A threat passed by police c. A customer asking questions about security arrangements d. A drunk customer shouting ‘’bomb’’ 40 / 40 40. What is the first thing security operative should do after receiving a bomb threat over the telephone? a. Inform the management and wait for further instructions b. Search the premisses to try and locate any device c. Assume that the call is a joke and ignore it d. Record the time of the call and report to police immediately
