Competency Assessment – Security Personnel Test Details This is a 40 multiple-choice questions/answers competency test. All question must be completed. Mark one answer per question. 0 points – given if answer is wrong, 5 points – given if answer is correct. The form must be submitted within 45 minutes after you start the test. Pass rate is 140 points (70%). Your name and surname will have to be entered after you press the finish button. 1 / 40 1. What is the most effective way of reducing personal risk at work place? a. Conducting risk assessment on regular basis b. Adequately using physical force to resolve conflicts c. Ensuring non involvement of police to avoid legal hassles d. Taking violent situation to one’s own to protect colleagues 2 / 40 2. Licensed premisses have permitted capacity limits to make sure that the: a. Local police know which premisses to test targeting b. Premises are safe and can be evacuated easily c. Licensing authority charges a correct fee for premisses license d. Premisses has enough room for customers to dance 3 / 40 3. On discovering fire, what’s the first thing security operative should do? a. Tackle the fire with appropriate extinguisher b. Call the emergency services c. Open all doors and windows close to the fire d. Raise the alarm 4 / 40 4. Key elements in the justification of Physical Intervention include the need for it to be: a. Accurate, brief, concise b. Accurate, brief, clear c. Unnecessary, unreasonable, disproportionate d. Necessary, reasonable, proportionate 5 / 40 5. Which of the following would be a reason to evacuate a premisses? a. Multiple sightings of the same person b. A customer asking questions about security arrangements c. A drunk customer shouting ‘’bomb’’ d. A threat passed by police 6 / 40 6. Which of the following is the crime reduction initiative? a. Health and Safety Officer b. Local Council c. Youth organisation parades d. National Pubwatch 7 / 40 7. Which of the following best describes a manned security sector? a. The use of CCTV equipment b. Using a body worn camera c. Guarding property against destruction or damage, against been stolen or against been otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained d. Using barriers and grills over the windows and doors 8 / 40 8. While using the P.O.P model (Person, Object, Place), you make the assessment of: a. Are they bigger, fitter, younger, and stronger than you? b. Remote areas, away from observation, safe refuge c. An object in the persons possession or a nearby item that could be used as a weapon d. All of the above 9 / 40 9. Who is the premisses license granted by? a. The Crown Court b. The Magistrate Court c. Home Office d. The licensing authority 10 / 40 10. Which of the following is the least effective deterrent for terrorist activity? a. A large sign informing the public that security staff are present b. The visible presence of vigilant security staff c. Having all customer bags searched before entry d. Searching inside and outside the venue at regular intervals 11 / 40 11. With regards to terrorism – what might be an indicator of suspicious activity? a. A person asking questions about opening and closing times of the venue b. An unknown car in the office car park c. A person walking past the building every day at the same time d. A person trying to avoid being seen on CCTV 12 / 40 12. Which of the following does the RIDDOR Act 1995 mandate? a. Reporting place at workplace b. Reporting accidents, incidents and injuries caused at workplace c. Reporting absenteeism at workplace d. Reporting drug abuse at workplace 13 / 40 13. Which of the following represent the UK government threat levels in order of severity? a. Low, Substantial, Severe, Critical b. Low, Moderate, Substantial, High c. Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical d. Low, Substantial, Severe, High, Critical 14 / 40 14. When do you use Run Hide Tell protocol? a. In the event of lone working hours b. In the event of fire emergency c. In the rare events of fire arms or weapons attack d. In the event of shoplifting 15 / 40 15. How would the word SECURE be pronounce using the phonetic alphabets? a. Sierra, Echo, Chopper, Uni, Rome, Echo b. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uni, Romeo, Echo c. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo d. Sierra, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo 16 / 40 16. In the event of a possible bomb threat what the first action a security operative should make? a. Raise the alarm and evacuate b. Remain calm c. Search for the bomb d. Contact the police 17 / 40 17. What is the definition of an ‘’offensive’’ weapon? a. Any object made or adapted to cause harm b. A broken bottle c. A blade caried for religious reasons d. A chef’s knife 18 / 40 18. What is the main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001? a. To improve pay and conditions for security operatives b. To regulate some sectors of the private security industry c. To regulate customer rights within private security industry d. To provide police with assistance at large events 19 / 40 19. Which of this is the main reason for security officer to record incidents? a. The less incidents that record, the better premisses will look b. The more incidents they record, the more pay rate will be c. It shows that they are doing their job better than others d. It may be used as evidence by police or in court 20 / 40 20. Which of the following might indicate a suspicious behaviour by a customer? a. Asking questions about security arrangements b. Parking their vehicle in the parking slot and then leaving the site c. A customer trying to make lots of friends d. Staying in the same place all day on the site 21 / 40 21. If the employee is taken to the hospital as a result of an injury sustained at work, their employer has a duty under RIDDOR to: a. Pay the employee unlimited damages and costs b. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy c. Report the incident to the Health and Safety executive d. Enter the incident in accident book once employee returns to work 22 / 40 22. At the scene of a serious incident in the licensed premisses, a door supervisor should make sure that: a. Everyone present at the time of an incident stays exactly where they are b. All the evidence is sealed and recorded in alphabetical order c. No one tampers with the evidence relating to the incident d. Broken glass and other items that may harm people are cleared away 23 / 40 23. Which of the following documents is suitable proof of ID? a. An over 18 gym membership card b. Valid driving license c. Job ID card d. A senior student library card 24 / 40 24. What is the main role of security officer? a. To ensure that customers are safe b. To promote the business c. To provide good customer service d. To ensure that everyone feels good 25 / 40 25. Under Health and safety legislation all employees have a duty to? a. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy b. Undergo annual health screen with a doctor to ensure they are fit to work c. Follow processes and procedures that have been put in place to protect their safety and that of others d. Undertake a detailed risk assessment of their working environment at the beginning of each shift 26 / 40 26. The abbreviation P.P.E. stands for? a. Personal Prevention Equipment b. Personal Protective Earplugs c. Permanent Protection Equipment d. Personal Protective Equipment 27 / 40 27. Why must security operatives must have clear fire evacuation procedure? a. So that they can provide an effective assistance in the event of an emergency b. To allow them to be the first one to reach the assembly point and make a call c. To help to judge whether evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly d. To enable them to re-enter the premisses to search for anyone who is missing 28 / 40 28. Which is the highest level of UK government threat level? a. High b. Substantial c. Critical d. Severe 29 / 40 29. What does the acronym F.I.R.E. mean in the context of fire safety? a. Find, Investigate, Remove, Exit b. Find, Inform, Restrict, Extinguish c. Follow, Remove, Inform, Evacuate d. Follow, Inform, Run, Evacuate 30 / 40 30. In the correct order, what do the two D’s In RIDDOR stand for? a. Dangerous and Disabled b. Doorman and Disabled c. Diseases and Dangerous d. Dangerous and Drunk 31 / 40 31. What does a ‘’ critical’’ terror threat level indicate? a. An attack is a strong possibility b. An attack is highly likely and expected imminently c. An attack is highly unlikely d. An attack is possible, but not likely 32 / 40 32. Explain the H.O.T protocol meaning? a. Hidden, obviously suspicious, typical b. Hidden, obstructed, typical c. Hindered, obviously suspicious, typical d. Hidden, obsolete, typical 33 / 40 33. When making an arrest, what must door supervisor do? a. Explain to the other customers, standing by, why the arrest is necessary b. Tell the person you are arresting, the reason for the arrest c. Ensure that the person they arresting is not drunk d. Call the police to assist with the arrest 34 / 40 34. What does SCaN stand for in security? a. See, clarify and note b. See, cordon and note c. See, check and notify d. See, control and notify 35 / 40 35. What could lead to destruction/loss of evidence on a crime scene? a. Collecting physical evidence b. Cordoning off the area of crime c. Documenting the scene of crime d. Leaving the scene with protective clothing on 36 / 40 36. When justifying use of Physical Intervention, what should be considered? a. That pain was the only method to control the person b. That all other options have failed or were likely to fail c. That no bystanders were injured d. That it was used thoroughly 37 / 40 37. What should the door supervisor do if, when searching, they find illegal drugs in customer’s possession? a. Destroy drugs immediately and call the police to report the incident b. Keep drugs in the safe place and return them to the customer when they leave the premisses c. Confiscate the drugs and record how, when and where they were found d. Security should put drugs in the pocket and hand it to the manager at their earliest convenience 38 / 40 38. Following the arrest of the person in the licensed premisses, police arrived, and a door supervisor must: a. Get the signed statement from the person arrested b. Ask to take leave until the court hearing c. Interview all witnesses to the offence d. Explain to the police why they arrested the person 39 / 40 39. Under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, what must a person have to be able to work as door supervisor? a. License to practice b. Annual fire safety training c. At least 12 month experience in the industry d. Annual Health and Safety training 40 / 40 40. What is the first thing security operative should do after receiving a bomb threat over the telephone? a. Assume that the call is a joke and ignore it b. Record the time of the call and report to police immediately c. Search the premisses to try and locate any device d. Inform the management and wait for further instructions
