Competency Assessment – Security Personnel Test Details This is a 40 multiple-choice questions/answers competency test. All question must be completed. Mark one answer per question. 0 points – given if answer is wrong, 5 points – given if answer is correct. The form must be submitted within 45 minutes after you start the test. Pass rate is 140 points (70%). Your name and surname will have to be entered after you press the finish button. 1 / 40 1. Under Health and safety legislation all employees have a duty to? a. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy b. Follow processes and procedures that have been put in place to protect their safety and that of others c. Undertake a detailed risk assessment of their working environment at the beginning of each shift d. Undergo annual health screen with a doctor to ensure they are fit to work 2 / 40 2. What does the acronym F.I.R.E. mean in the context of fire safety? a. Find, Inform, Restrict, Extinguish b. Find, Investigate, Remove, Exit c. Follow, Remove, Inform, Evacuate d. Follow, Inform, Run, Evacuate 3 / 40 3. Which of the following is the crime reduction initiative? a. Health and Safety Officer b. Youth organisation parades c. National Pubwatch d. Local Council 4 / 40 4. Which of the following would be a reason to evacuate a premisses? a. Multiple sightings of the same person b. A customer asking questions about security arrangements c. A drunk customer shouting ‘’bomb’’ d. A threat passed by police 5 / 40 5. Which of the following does the RIDDOR Act 1995 mandate? a. Reporting place at workplace b. Reporting drug abuse at workplace c. Reporting accidents, incidents and injuries caused at workplace d. Reporting absenteeism at workplace 6 / 40 6. Licensed premisses have permitted capacity limits to make sure that the: a. Premisses has enough room for customers to dance b. Local police know which premisses to test targeting c. Premises are safe and can be evacuated easily d. Licensing authority charges a correct fee for premisses license 7 / 40 7. Key elements in the justification of Physical Intervention include the need for it to be: a. Accurate, brief, clear b. Unnecessary, unreasonable, disproportionate c. Accurate, brief, concise d. Necessary, reasonable, proportionate 8 / 40 8. Which of the following represent the UK government threat levels in order of severity? a. Low, Moderate, Substantial, High b. Low, Substantial, Severe, Critical c. Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical d. Low, Substantial, Severe, High, Critical 9 / 40 9. At the scene of a serious incident in the licensed premisses, a door supervisor should make sure that: a. Broken glass and other items that may harm people are cleared away b. All the evidence is sealed and recorded in alphabetical order c. No one tampers with the evidence relating to the incident d. Everyone present at the time of an incident stays exactly where they are 10 / 40 10. On discovering fire, what’s the first thing security operative should do? a. Raise the alarm b. Tackle the fire with appropriate extinguisher c. Open all doors and windows close to the fire d. Call the emergency services 11 / 40 11. In the event of a possible bomb threat what the first action a security operative should make? a. Raise the alarm and evacuate b. Remain calm c. Contact the police d. Search for the bomb 12 / 40 12. What does a ‘’ critical’’ terror threat level indicate? a. An attack is possible, but not likely b. An attack is highly unlikely c. An attack is highly likely and expected imminently d. An attack is a strong possibility 13 / 40 13. In the correct order, what do the two D’s In RIDDOR stand for? a. Dangerous and Disabled b. Doorman and Disabled c. Dangerous and Drunk d. Diseases and Dangerous 14 / 40 14. While using the P.O.P model (Person, Object, Place), you make the assessment of: a. Remote areas, away from observation, safe refuge b. Are they bigger, fitter, younger, and stronger than you? c. All of the above d. An object in the persons possession or a nearby item that could be used as a weapon 15 / 40 15. What does SCaN stand for in security? a. See, control and notify b. See, cordon and note c. See, clarify and note d. See, check and notify 16 / 40 16. Which of the following might indicate a suspicious behaviour by a customer? a. Parking their vehicle in the parking slot and then leaving the site b. Staying in the same place all day on the site c. Asking questions about security arrangements d. A customer trying to make lots of friends 17 / 40 17. The abbreviation P.P.E. stands for? a. Permanent Protection Equipment b. Personal Prevention Equipment c. Personal Protective Earplugs d. Personal Protective Equipment 18 / 40 18. What could lead to destruction/loss of evidence on a crime scene? a. Collecting physical evidence b. Documenting the scene of crime c. Leaving the scene with protective clothing on d. Cordoning off the area of crime 19 / 40 19. Which of the following is the least effective deterrent for terrorist activity? a. Searching inside and outside the venue at regular intervals b. A large sign informing the public that security staff are present c. Having all customer bags searched before entry d. The visible presence of vigilant security staff 20 / 40 20. Which of the following documents is suitable proof of ID? a. Job ID card b. Valid driving license c. A senior student library card d. An over 18 gym membership card 21 / 40 21. Explain the H.O.T protocol meaning? a. Hidden, obsolete, typical b. Hidden, obviously suspicious, typical c. Hidden, obstructed, typical d. Hindered, obviously suspicious, typical 22 / 40 22. Which of this is the main reason for security officer to record incidents? a. It may be used as evidence by police or in court b. It shows that they are doing their job better than others c. The less incidents that record, the better premisses will look d. The more incidents they record, the more pay rate will be 23 / 40 23. Under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, what must a person have to be able to work as door supervisor? a. License to practice b. At least 12 month experience in the industry c. Annual fire safety training d. Annual Health and Safety training 24 / 40 24. When justifying use of Physical Intervention, what should be considered? a. That all other options have failed or were likely to fail b. That pain was the only method to control the person c. That no bystanders were injured d. That it was used thoroughly 25 / 40 25. Which is the highest level of UK government threat level? a. Substantial b. Severe c. High d. Critical 26 / 40 26. Why must security operatives must have clear fire evacuation procedure? a. To allow them to be the first one to reach the assembly point and make a call b. So that they can provide an effective assistance in the event of an emergency c. To enable them to re-enter the premisses to search for anyone who is missing d. To help to judge whether evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly 27 / 40 27. Which of the following best describes a manned security sector? a. The use of CCTV equipment b. Guarding property against destruction or damage, against been stolen or against been otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained c. Using barriers and grills over the windows and doors d. Using a body worn camera 28 / 40 28. When do you use Run Hide Tell protocol? a. In the event of fire emergency b. In the event of lone working hours c. In the event of shoplifting d. In the rare events of fire arms or weapons attack 29 / 40 29. When making an arrest, what must door supervisor do? a. Call the police to assist with the arrest b. Tell the person you are arresting, the reason for the arrest c. Explain to the other customers, standing by, why the arrest is necessary d. Ensure that the person they arresting is not drunk 30 / 40 30. What is the main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001? a. To improve pay and conditions for security operatives b. To provide police with assistance at large events c. To regulate some sectors of the private security industry d. To regulate customer rights within private security industry 31 / 40 31. What is the most effective way of reducing personal risk at work place? a. Taking violent situation to one’s own to protect colleagues b. Conducting risk assessment on regular basis c. Adequately using physical force to resolve conflicts d. Ensuring non involvement of police to avoid legal hassles 32 / 40 32. What is the first thing security operative should do after receiving a bomb threat over the telephone? a. Search the premisses to try and locate any device b. Record the time of the call and report to police immediately c. Assume that the call is a joke and ignore it d. Inform the management and wait for further instructions 33 / 40 33. Following the arrest of the person in the licensed premisses, police arrived, and a door supervisor must: a. Interview all witnesses to the offence b. Ask to take leave until the court hearing c. Get the signed statement from the person arrested d. Explain to the police why they arrested the person 34 / 40 34. Who is the premisses license granted by? a. The Magistrate Court b. Home Office c. The Crown Court d. The licensing authority 35 / 40 35. If the employee is taken to the hospital as a result of an injury sustained at work, their employer has a duty under RIDDOR to: a. Pay the employee unlimited damages and costs b. Enter the incident in accident book once employee returns to work c. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy d. Report the incident to the Health and Safety executive 36 / 40 36. With regards to terrorism – what might be an indicator of suspicious activity? a. A person walking past the building every day at the same time b. A person trying to avoid being seen on CCTV c. A person asking questions about opening and closing times of the venue d. An unknown car in the office car park 37 / 40 37. What should the door supervisor do if, when searching, they find illegal drugs in customer’s possession? a. Confiscate the drugs and record how, when and where they were found b. Security should put drugs in the pocket and hand it to the manager at their earliest convenience c. Keep drugs in the safe place and return them to the customer when they leave the premisses d. Destroy drugs immediately and call the police to report the incident 38 / 40 38. How would the word SECURE be pronounce using the phonetic alphabets? a. Sierra, Echo, Chopper, Uni, Rome, Echo b. Sierra, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo c. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uni, Romeo, Echo d. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo 39 / 40 39. What is the main role of security officer? a. To ensure that everyone feels good b. To promote the business c. To ensure that customers are safe d. To provide good customer service 40 / 40 40. What is the definition of an ‘’offensive’’ weapon? a. A chef’s knife b. A blade caried for religious reasons c. A broken bottle d. Any object made or adapted to cause harm